Top 25 Most Important Nursing Exam Questions with Answers & Explanations for NORCET 2025

1) Hand Hygiene – “5 Moments”

Q. According to WHO’s “5 Moments,” when is NOT one of the moments for hand hygiene?
A. Before touching a patient
B. After body fluid exposure risk
C. Before putting on clean gloves for a non-patient task
D. After touching patient surroundings
Answer: C

Why: The 5 moments are: before touching patient, before clean/aseptic procedure, after body fluid exposure risk, after touching patient, after touching patient surroundings. Gloving for a non-patient task isn’t one of the moments.
Quick tip: Think BB-AAA → Before patient, Before asepsis; After fluids, After patient, After surroundings.

2) Biomedical Waste (India)

Q. Used needles (sharps) are discarded in which container?
A. Yellow
B. Red
C. White (translucent, puncture-proof)
D. Blue
Answer: C

Why: India’s BMW rules: White—sharps, Red—contaminated recyclables (IV sets, tubing), Yellow—soiled/anatomical, Blue—glassware/metal implants.

3) Adult CPR Basics

Q. For an unresponsive adult with no normal breathing and no pulse, the correct compression rate is:
A. 80–100/min
B. 100–120/min
C. 120–140/min
D. 60–80/min
Answer: B

Why: Evidence-based standard: 100–120/min with depth ~5–6 cm, allow full recoil, minimize interruptions.
Memory: “1 to 2” → 100–120.

4) Oxygen Therapy in COPD

Q. Target SpO₂ for an acute COPD exacerbation (on oxygen) is:
A. 96–100%
B. 88–92%
C. 80–85%
D. 93–95%
Answer: B

Why: Avoid suppressing hypoxic drive and CO₂ retention—88–92% is safe.

5) IV Flow Rate Calculation

Q. Order: 1 L NS over 8 h with tubing 15 gtt/mL. What’s the drip rate?
A. 21 gtt/min
B. 31 gtt/min
C. 42 gtt/min
D. 52 gtt/min
Answer: C

Why: 1000 mL ÷ 480 min = 2.083 mL/min; ×15 gtt/mL ≈ 31 gtt/min—wait, check!
Correct calc for 8 h = 480 min: (1000/480)×15 = 31.25 → 31 gtt/min.
Correct Answer (revised): B
Note: Always re-check math! (NORCET loves this trap.)

6) Drug–Antidote Match

Q. Heparin overdose—antidote?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Naloxone
D. Flumazenil
Answer: B

Why: Protamine neutralizes heparin. Vitamin K is for warfarin.

7) Electrolyte & ECG

Q. Tall “peaked” T waves suggest which imbalance?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: B

Why: Hyperkalemia → tall peaked T, widened QRS, risk of arrest.

8) Rights of Medication Administration

Q. Which is NOT one of the “Rights” of medication administration?
A. Right patient
B. Right reason
C. Right to refuse
D. Right prescriber specialty
Answer: D

Why: Core set includes right patient, drug, dose, time, route, documentation, reason, response, education, and right to refuse.

9) Isolation Precautions

Q. Pulmonary TB requires:
A. Contact precautions only
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions (N95, negative pressure)
D. Standard precautions only
Answer: C

10) Diabetes Sick-Day Rule

Q. Which advice is most appropriate for a type-1 diabetic with fever?
A. Skip insulin to avoid hypoglycemia
B. Check glucose and ketones more frequently and continue insulin
C. Double oral fluids only if glucose <70
D. Avoid carbohydrates
Answer: B

Why: Continue insulin; monitor glucose/ketones; maintain hydration and carbs.

11) Burns—Resuscitation Formula

Q. Parkland formula for 24 h fluid in adults with thermal burns is:
A. 2 mL × kg × %TBSA (crystalloid)
B. 4 mL × kg × %TBSA (crystalloid)
C. 6 mL × kg × %TBSA (colloid)
D. 8 mL × kg × %TBSA (colloid)
Answer: B

Why: 4 mL LR × weight × %TBSA; ½ in first 8 h, ½ in next 16 h.

12) Stroke—FAST

Q. In suspected stroke (<4.5 h), the first priority is:
A. Start aspirin
B. CT brain (non-contrast)
C. Start heparin
D. Check lipid profile
Answer: B

Why: Rule out hemorrhage before antithrombotics/thrombolysis.

13) Preeclampsia—Seizure Prophylaxis

Q. Drug of choice to prevent/treat eclamptic seizures:
A. Diazepam
B. Phenytoin
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Midazolam
Answer: C

Why: MgSO₄ is first-line; antidote: 10% calcium gluconate.

14) NST Interpretation (OB)

Q. A reactive non-stress test (NST) at term shows:
A. 2 accelerations of ≥10 bpm for ≥10 s in 20 min
B. 2 accelerations of ≥15 bpm for ≥15 s in 20 min
C. Variable decelerations
D. Late decelerations
Answer: B

Why: Term fetus criterion: 15×15 rule (preterm often 10×10).

15) Partograph – Action Line

Q. In a WHO partograph, crossing the action line suggests:
A. Normal progress
B. Need for augmentation/obstetric action
C. Immediate cesarean
D. Fetal demise
Answer: B

Why: Alert/action lines guide timely interventions for slow labor.

16) Newborn Resuscitation—Initial Step

Q. A non-crying newborn with good tone, term—first action?
A. Start chest compressions
B. Dry and stimulate, clear airway if needed, warm
C. Give oxygen by mask immediately
D. Give epinephrine
Answer: B

Why: Initial steps: warm, position, clear airway if needed, dry, stimulate; then assess breathing/HR.

17) IMNCI—Fast Breathing Cut-off (2–12 months)

Q. Fast breathing in 2–12-month child (IMNCI) is RR ≥
A. 40/min
B. 45/min
C. 50/min
D. 60/min
Answer: C

Why: IMNCI thresholds: <2 m ≥60, 2–12 m ≥50, 1–5 y ≥40.

18) ORS Preparation (WHO Low-Osmolarity)

Q. Correct total volume after dissolving one standard ORS packet is:
A. 500 mL
B. 750 mL
C. 1 L
D. 1.5 L
Answer: C

Why: One sachet → 1 liter safe water.

19) Pediatric Dehydration Sign

Q. Sunken eyes, very slow skin pinch, lethargic child: classify as
A. No dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. Shock
Answer: C

Why: “Two or more signs” with one key sign (lethargy/unconscious, very sunken eyes, very slow recoil, unable to drink) → severe.

20) Psychiatric Nursing—Lithium

Q. Therapeutic serum lithium level (acute mania) is approx.:
A. 0.1–0.4 mEq/L
B. 0.4–0.8 mEq/L
C. 0.6–1.2 mEq/L
D. 2.0–3.0 mEq/L
Answer: C

Why: Watch for tremor, diarrhea, ataxia—signs of toxicity; encourage fluids, consistent salt.

21) Legal/Ethical—Consent

Q. A conscious adult refuses a life-saving treatment. The nurse should:
A. Restrain and proceed
B. Call security
C. Respect the decision after ensuring informed refusal and document
D. Proceed after family consent
Answer: C

Why: Autonomy and informed consent/refusal are fundamental.

22) Infection Control—Catheter Care

Q. Best strategy to prevent CAUTI is:
A. Routine bladder irrigation
B. Antibiotic prophylaxis
C. Avoid unnecessary catheterization & early removal
D. Twice-daily meatal antiseptic
Answer: C

Why: Indication review + removal ASAP have strongest evidence.

23) Common Antenatal Supplement

Q. Recommended daily iron–folic acid (IFA) for pregnant women in India (prophylaxis) is typically:
A. 30 mg iron + 100 µg folic acid for 30 days
B. 60 mg elemental iron + 500 µg folic acid for at least 100 days
C. 100 mg iron + 5 mg folic acid for 30 days
D. 10 mg iron + 400 µg folic acid for 6 months
Answer: B

Why: National program standard: 60 mg Fe + 500 µg FA daily.

24) Immunization at Birth (Universal)

Q. Which vaccines are given at birth under India’s UIP (if no contraindication)?
A. BCG, OPV-0, HepB-0
B. BCG, DPT-1, HepB-0
C. OPV-1, Rotavirus-1
D. MR-1, IPV-1
Answer: A

25) Lab Values—Sodium

Q. Normal adult serum sodium range is:
A. 125–135 mEq/L
B. 130–140 mEq/L
C. 135–145 mEq/L
D. 140–150 mEq/L
Answer: C

Why: Hyponatremia <135; hypernatremia >145. Monitor neuro status.

Rapid-Review Tables (mini cheats)

Common Antidotes

Opioids → Naloxone
Benzos → Flumazenil
Organophosphates → Atropine + Pralidoxime
Heparin → Protamine
Warfarin → Vitamin K
Paracetamol → N-acetylcysteine

OB must-knows

Preeclampsia dx: ≥140/90 after 20 w + proteinuria or severe features
Eclampsia mgmt: Airway, MgSO₄, control BP (labetalol/hydralazine)

Fluid formulas

Maintenance (adult rough): 30–35 mL/kg/day
Peds maintenance (4-2-1 rule): 4 mL/kg (1st 10 kg) + 2 mL/kg (2nd 10 kg) + 1 mL/kg (rest) per hour

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